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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

15.06.2025 06:05

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What are the differences between fuzzy, intuitionistic, and paraconsistent logic? Which one is considered the most useful and why?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

My boyfriend always verbally abuse me and makes me cry. If I try to tell him how hurt I was, he says to me he loves me and can't hurt me but always abuse me. Why?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

I wore a Trump hat to a doctor’s visit. The doctor made a strange comment, he was obviously on the opposite political point that make me uncomfortable. What shall I do on my next visit?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.